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Brian Mains
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Brian Mains asked on 24 Jul 2012, 07:39 PM

So what I'm reading is that I cannot have a stored procedure defines an explicit transaction as such:

create procedure CreateSomeRecords
   . . .


begin transaction
begin try
    insert into X (..) values (..)
    insert into X (..) values (..) 

    commit transaction
end try
begin catch
    rollback transaction

    insert into errorlogs (..) values ( .. sql error info .. )
end catch

My app would call this function from within the OpenAccess context.  I read that OpenAccess wraps its request around a transaction, so stored procedure transactions don't work.  Is that correct?  I couldn't find anything definitive, so I'm posting this question directly.


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Telerik team
answered on 27 Jul 2012, 03:44 PM
Hello Brian,

Yes, OpenAccess ORM does use a transaction when calling the database. In case nested transactions are supported by the backend you are using, this shouldn't be a problem. If they are not supported, you can isolate those calls using ADO.NET as a workaround.

Do not hesitate to get back to us if you have other questions or if you need any clarifications.

Kind regards,
the Telerik team
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